I went to some Doug Green lectures yesterday. Good stuff. An interesting new take on Gen 3:22.
"And the LORD God said, "The man has now become like one of us, knowing good and evil. He must not be allowed to reach out his hand and take also from the tree of life and eat, and live forever."
What if 'has now become' was translated 'used to be'?
"And the LORD God said, "The man used to be like one of us, knowing good and evil. He must not be allowed to reach out his hand and take also from the tree of life and eat, and live forever."
The man [and woman] were already like God. They knew the difference between good and evil. But now they don't. Their minds have been darkened (Rom 1). It would be bad if they lived forever. They must leave the garden.
I'm drawn to Doug's alternate translation because it makes better sense than the traditional 'has now become'. The way I've heard the traditional translation explained is that Adam and Eve were previously innocent. Post-fall they 'knew' evil in the way that a husband 'knows' his wife. They'd experienced it. I struggle with this explanation because it makes the sinful state sound like the mature state of humanity. It almost glorifies sin. 'Used to be' captures the great fall from wisdom and knowledge that happened in ... the fall!
I know no Hebrew so I can't make a call on this. I've heard that 'have now become' is how that tense is usually rendered elsewhere in the OT. Anyone know anything?