Do I need to assume that Jesus had the LXX foremost in his mind?
Would he have been familiar with the Hebrew?
I want to argue that John 8:58 is an Exodus 'I AM' reference.
58 Jesus said to them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was born, I am.”
That 'I am' is ego eimi.
Carson is telling me that it's not a reference to Exodus 3 because Ex 3 in the LXX reads 'I am (Ego eime) the existent one (ho on). Tell them the existent one (ho on) has sent you.' If Jesus was referring to the I AM of Exodus 3, he'd have used ho on instead of ego eime.
Carson then argues that the John 8:58 'I am' is a reference to Isaiah 40. Ex 3 / Is 40 makes very little difference to the take home message... but Is 40 is much harder to package up in a Sunday School lesson.
Can I defy Carson and take it as a reference to Exodus 3?
Help me out guys.